-
SSC (Western Region)
Name of Posts – Court Master, Library and Information Assistant, Technical
Superintendent (Weaving) etc.
No. of Vacancies- 38
Last Date-21.04.2015
-
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC), Dehradun
Name of Post-Assistant Executive Engineer (Cementing, Civil, Drilling,
Electrical etc.), Chemist, Geologist etc.
No. of Vacancies- 873
Last Date – 10.04.2015
-
Narmada Jhabua Gramin Bank, Indore
Name of Post-Officers (General Banking Officer, IT, CA, Treasury Manager
etc.) and Office Assistant.
No. of Vacancies –350
Last Date – 08..04.2015
-
Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemical Limited (MRPL), Mangalore
Name of Posts- Chief Manager, Sr. Manager, Dy. Manager, Sr. Executive etc.
No. of Vacancies- 24
Last Date- 04.04.2015
-
Coal India Limited, Kolkata
Name of the Posts- Sr. Medical Specialist, Medical Specialist and Sr. Medical Officer.
No. of Vacancies- 281
Last Date- 04.04.2015
-
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Delhi
Name of the Posts- Scientists
No. of Vacancies- 23
Last Date- 20 days of publication
AYZExamAlerts - Goverment Jobs| Bank Jobs| Railway Jobs| Police/Defence Jobs| Teacher Jobs| Exam GK| Current Affairs| Exam Pattern| Selection Process| Eligibility| Syllabus| Admit cards| Results| Papers|Download ebooks and more...,,,
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Weekly Employment News/Rozgar samacharfrom 21 March to 27 March 2015
Jobs in BPSC (Bihar Public Service Commission) Recruitment Notification 2015 for 977 Veterinary Services Post Apply Offline
BPSC (Bihar Public Service Commission) Has Released Recruitment Notification For 977 Veterinary Services Posts. All Eligible And Interested Candidates Can Apply Offline On Or Before 17-04-2015 (17th April 2015). Further Detailed Information Regarding Educational Qualifications, Age Limit, Selection Procedure, Exam Pattern, Syllabus for BPSC (Bihar Public Service Commission) Recruitment 2015 - 977 Veterinary Services Post is mentioned below
BPSC (Bihar Public Service Commission) Recruitment 2015 Detailed Vacancy Information -
Total No. of Posts - 977 posts
BPSC (Bihar Public Service Commission) Recruitment 2015 Detailed Vacancy Information -
Total No. of Posts - 977 posts
For More Details Click Here
UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Recruitment Notification 2015 for 1402 Combined Medical Services Examination 2015 Post Apply Online at upsconline.nic.in
UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Has Released Recruitment Notification For 1402 Combined Medical Services Examination 2015 Posts. All Eligible And Interested Candidates Can Apply Online On Or Before 10-04-2015 . Further Detailed Information Regarding Educational Qualifications, Age Limit, Selection Procedure, Exam Pattern, Syllabus for UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Recruitment 2015 - 1402 Combined Medical Services Examination 2015 Post is mentioned below
UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Recruitment 2015 Detailed Vacancy Information -
UPSC (Union Public Service Commission) Recruitment 2015 Detailed Vacancy Information -
Total No. of Posts - 1402 posts
For More Details Click Here
January 2015 current Affairs Quiz
1) Mahendra Singh Dhoni on 30 December 2014 announced immediate retirement from which format of the cricket?
(A) ODI
(B) Twenty-20
(C) Test
(D) All of these
Ans. (C) Test
2) Commercial power generation in Kudankulam nuclear power plant started on 30 December 2014 after getting approval from the Nuclear Power Corporation. Kudankulam nuclear power plant is situated in which state?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (D) Tamil Nadu
3) Finance ministry has recently decided not to extend excise duty cuts on automobiles beyond December 31. The interim Budget of former finance minister P Chidambaram had reduced the excise duty on small cars, scooters, motorcycles and commercial vehicles to __% from 12%?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 9%
(D) 10%
Ans. (A) 8%
4) Uttrakhand Governor Aziz Qureshi was on 30 December 2014 shifted to which state?
(A) Kerala
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Mizoram
(D) Gujarat
Ans. (C) Mizoram
5) Union government on 31 December 2014 has blocked access to how many websites for carrying anti-India views and spreading banned terrorist outfit Islamic State of Iraq and Syria’s (ISIS) propaganda?
(A) 15
(B) 32
(C) 45
(D) 63
Ans. (B) 32
6) Government has on 31 December 2014 decided to separate the post of Chairman and Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) in public sector banks. As per the Finance Ministry, the Chairman in public sector banks other than which bank will be a part- time board member henceforth?
(A) NABARD
(B) State Bank of India
(C) United Bank of India
(D) Indian Overseas Bank
Ans. (B) State Bank of India
7) M Sathiyavathy has recently become first woman to be appointed as Director General (DG) of?
(A) Department of Posts
(B) Central Information Commission
(C) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
(D) Pay Commission
Ans. (C) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
8) President Pranab Mukherjee on 31 December 2014 has given his assent to NJAC Bill, 2014 that seeks to scrap the collegium system of appointing?
(A) Judges to higher judiciary
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Director of CBI
(D) Chief Information Commissioner
Ans. (A) Judges to higher judiciary
9) Amidst row and demonstrations over Aamir Khan-starrer 'PK', which state government has recently decided to exempt the movie from entertainment tax?
(A) Delhi
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans. (C) Uttar Pradesh
10) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman K. Radhakrishnan retired on 31 December 2014. Who will hold additional and interim charge as Chairman of ISRO for a month or until a regular chief is named?
(A) R.S. Sharma
(B) S. Ramakrishnan
(C) M. Chandra Dathan (D) Shailesh Nayak
Ans. (D) Shailesh Nayak
Current Affairs Quiz: 3 January 2015 11) Which Sri Lankan cricketer recently become only the fifth cricketer to make 12,000 runs in Test cricket?
(A) Kumar Sangakkara
(B) Mahela Jayawardene
(C) Tillakaratne Dilshan
(D) Angelo Mathews
Ans. (A) Kumar Sangakkara
12) Footballer Steven Gerrard on 2 January 2015 has announced his decision to leave which football club that has been his home for last many years?
(A) Manchester City
(B) Chelsea
(C) Liverpool
(D) Sunderland
Ans. (C) Liverpool
13) Union Government has recently extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 for another one year in which state and has declared the entire state as a ‘Disturbed Area’?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Assam
(C) Chattisgarh
(D) Arunchal Pradesh
Ans. (B) Assam
14) Post office savings bank accounts can now be operated through ATMs following a recent gazette notification amending which Post Office rules?
(A) Post Office Savings Bank General Rules, 1981
(B) Indian Post Office Rules, 1933
(C) Indian Post Office Act, 1898
(D) Post Office Guide Part-I
Ans. (A) Post Office Savings Bank General Rules, 1981
15) Sports Ministry on 2 January 2015 cleared the National Boxing Federations new name called?
(A) Indian Boxing Association
(B) Board of Control for Boxing in India
(C) Association for National Boxing
(D) Boxing India
Ans. (D) Boxing India
16) Dr. Vasant Ranchod Gowarikar who passed away in Pune, Maharashtra on 2 January 2015 was an eminent?
(A) Film Director
(B) Writer
(C) Scientist
(D) Historian
Ans. (C) Scientist
17) Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently dedicated "Akodara Village" in which state as "ICICI Digital Village’ to the nation at an event which was organised to celebrate the ICICI Group’s 60 years of ‘partnering India’ in its progress?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Odisha
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (B) Gujarat
18) Union Water Resources Ministry will launch an initiative called ____ to be adopted in every district of the country during the India Water Week from January 13 to 17?
(A) 'Jal He To Kal He, Jal Nahi To Kuch Nahi'
(B) 'Aap Paani Ko Bachao Or Paani apko Bachayega'
(C) ' Jal Jeevan ka Anmol Ratan'
(D) 'Hamara Jal, Hamara Jeewan'
Ans. (D) 'Hamara Jal, Hamara Jeewan'
19) Who recently (Jan 2015) became the first cricketer to cross 5 million followers on Twitter?
(A) Virat Kohli
(B) Chris Gayle
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) MS Dhoni
Ans. (A) Virat Kohli
20) Suburban train service in which metropolitan city was affected on 2 January 2015 as commuters turned violent protesting a snag caused in electric supply to trains?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Ans. (C) Mumbai
21) What product, essential to elections in India is solely manufactured by Mysore Paints and Varnish Ltd?
(A) Electronic Voting Machine
(B) Indelible Ink
(C) Ballot Boxes
(D) Voter ID cards
Ans. (B) Indelible Ink
22) According to Standard time zone classification, the earth is divided into how many time zones?
(A) 24
(B) 96
(C) 48
(D) 12
Ans. (A) 24
23) Which is the least populated state of India?
(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Sikkim
(D) Telangana
Ans. (C) Sikkim
24) On the banks of which river is the holy city Ayodhya located?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Ganga
(C) Saryu
(D) YamunaAns. (C) Saryu
25) Who was the first lady Air Marshal of the Indian Air Force?
(A) Lakshmi Sehgal
(B) Puneeta Arora
(C) Nirmala Kannan
(D) Padmavathy Bandopadhyay
Ans. (D) Padmavathy Bandopadhyay
(A) ODI
(B) Twenty-20
(C) Test
(D) All of these
Ans. (C) Test
2) Commercial power generation in Kudankulam nuclear power plant started on 30 December 2014 after getting approval from the Nuclear Power Corporation. Kudankulam nuclear power plant is situated in which state?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (D) Tamil Nadu
3) Finance ministry has recently decided not to extend excise duty cuts on automobiles beyond December 31. The interim Budget of former finance minister P Chidambaram had reduced the excise duty on small cars, scooters, motorcycles and commercial vehicles to __% from 12%?
(A) 8%
(B) 6%
(C) 9%
(D) 10%
Ans. (A) 8%
4) Uttrakhand Governor Aziz Qureshi was on 30 December 2014 shifted to which state?
(A) Kerala
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Mizoram
(D) Gujarat
Ans. (C) Mizoram
5) Union government on 31 December 2014 has blocked access to how many websites for carrying anti-India views and spreading banned terrorist outfit Islamic State of Iraq and Syria’s (ISIS) propaganda?
(A) 15
(B) 32
(C) 45
(D) 63
Ans. (B) 32
6) Government has on 31 December 2014 decided to separate the post of Chairman and Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) in public sector banks. As per the Finance Ministry, the Chairman in public sector banks other than which bank will be a part- time board member henceforth?
(A) NABARD
(B) State Bank of India
(C) United Bank of India
(D) Indian Overseas Bank
Ans. (B) State Bank of India
7) M Sathiyavathy has recently become first woman to be appointed as Director General (DG) of?
(A) Department of Posts
(B) Central Information Commission
(C) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
(D) Pay Commission
Ans. (C) Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
8) President Pranab Mukherjee on 31 December 2014 has given his assent to NJAC Bill, 2014 that seeks to scrap the collegium system of appointing?
(A) Judges to higher judiciary
(B) Central Vigilance Commission
(C) Director of CBI
(D) Chief Information Commissioner
Ans. (A) Judges to higher judiciary
9) Amidst row and demonstrations over Aamir Khan-starrer 'PK', which state government has recently decided to exempt the movie from entertainment tax?
(A) Delhi
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans. (C) Uttar Pradesh
10) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) Chairman K. Radhakrishnan retired on 31 December 2014. Who will hold additional and interim charge as Chairman of ISRO for a month or until a regular chief is named?
(A) R.S. Sharma
(B) S. Ramakrishnan
(C) M. Chandra Dathan (D) Shailesh Nayak
Ans. (D) Shailesh Nayak
Current Affairs Quiz: 3 January 2015 11) Which Sri Lankan cricketer recently become only the fifth cricketer to make 12,000 runs in Test cricket?
(A) Kumar Sangakkara
(B) Mahela Jayawardene
(C) Tillakaratne Dilshan
(D) Angelo Mathews
Ans. (A) Kumar Sangakkara
12) Footballer Steven Gerrard on 2 January 2015 has announced his decision to leave which football club that has been his home for last many years?
(A) Manchester City
(B) Chelsea
(C) Liverpool
(D) Sunderland
Ans. (C) Liverpool
13) Union Government has recently extended the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 for another one year in which state and has declared the entire state as a ‘Disturbed Area’?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Assam
(C) Chattisgarh
(D) Arunchal Pradesh
Ans. (B) Assam
14) Post office savings bank accounts can now be operated through ATMs following a recent gazette notification amending which Post Office rules?
(A) Post Office Savings Bank General Rules, 1981
(B) Indian Post Office Rules, 1933
(C) Indian Post Office Act, 1898
(D) Post Office Guide Part-I
Ans. (A) Post Office Savings Bank General Rules, 1981
15) Sports Ministry on 2 January 2015 cleared the National Boxing Federations new name called?
(A) Indian Boxing Association
(B) Board of Control for Boxing in India
(C) Association for National Boxing
(D) Boxing India
Ans. (D) Boxing India
16) Dr. Vasant Ranchod Gowarikar who passed away in Pune, Maharashtra on 2 January 2015 was an eminent?
(A) Film Director
(B) Writer
(C) Scientist
(D) Historian
Ans. (C) Scientist
17) Prime Minister Narendra Modi recently dedicated "Akodara Village" in which state as "ICICI Digital Village’ to the nation at an event which was organised to celebrate the ICICI Group’s 60 years of ‘partnering India’ in its progress?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Gujarat
(C) Odisha
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (B) Gujarat
18) Union Water Resources Ministry will launch an initiative called ____ to be adopted in every district of the country during the India Water Week from January 13 to 17?
(A) 'Jal He To Kal He, Jal Nahi To Kuch Nahi'
(B) 'Aap Paani Ko Bachao Or Paani apko Bachayega'
(C) ' Jal Jeevan ka Anmol Ratan'
(D) 'Hamara Jal, Hamara Jeewan'
Ans. (D) 'Hamara Jal, Hamara Jeewan'
19) Who recently (Jan 2015) became the first cricketer to cross 5 million followers on Twitter?
(A) Virat Kohli
(B) Chris Gayle
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) MS Dhoni
Ans. (A) Virat Kohli
20) Suburban train service in which metropolitan city was affected on 2 January 2015 as commuters turned violent protesting a snag caused in electric supply to trains?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Ans. (C) Mumbai
21) What product, essential to elections in India is solely manufactured by Mysore Paints and Varnish Ltd?
(A) Electronic Voting Machine
(B) Indelible Ink
(C) Ballot Boxes
(D) Voter ID cards
Ans. (B) Indelible Ink
22) According to Standard time zone classification, the earth is divided into how many time zones?
(A) 24
(B) 96
(C) 48
(D) 12
Ans. (A) 24
23) Which is the least populated state of India?
(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Sikkim
(D) Telangana
Ans. (C) Sikkim
24) On the banks of which river is the holy city Ayodhya located?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Ganga
(C) Saryu
(D) YamunaAns. (C) Saryu
25) Who was the first lady Air Marshal of the Indian Air Force?
(A) Lakshmi Sehgal
(B) Puneeta Arora
(C) Nirmala Kannan
(D) Padmavathy Bandopadhyay
Ans. (D) Padmavathy Bandopadhyay
For More Read Click Here
UPSC NDA Selection Procedure Details
NDA Selection Procedure Details: Union
Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts NDA (National Defence
Academy) & NA (National Academy) Exam -II. The candidates who are
eligible apply through online and offline application mode. Minimum
Educational Qualification is 12 th Class pass in 10+2 Pattern. The
selection process is based on Written Test & Interview . The details
are as follows…
Selection Procedure:
UPSC conducts NDA (National Defence Academy) Exam in Two Stages.
I. Written Examination
II. Interview
I. Written Examination
II. Interview
I. Written Examination:
The exam will constitute 2 subjects, Maths and General Ability Test and
each subject is given the time limit 2 ½ Hours, maximum marks for Maths
is 300 & General ability is 600. The papers in all the subjects
will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers of
Mathematics & Part B of General Ability Test will be set bilingually
in Hindi as well as English. The Commission have discretion to fix
qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination.
II. Interview:
Qualified candidates in the written examination will be called for
Interview conducted by SSB (Services selection board). For Army, Navy
Wings & 10 +2 Entry Scheme candidates need to undergo Intelligence
Test & Personality Test, but for Air Force Wing the candidates must
attend a Pilot Aptitude Test. The Interview Consists both Intelligence
and Personality Test. In interview the candidates will be put to
Intelligence Tests both Verbal and Non Verbal Tests based knowledge to
assess their intelligence, they will also go to Group Tests such as
Group Discussions, Group Planning, Outdoor Group Tasks, and asked to
give Brief Lectures on Specified Subjects.
Intelligence and Personality Test:
The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process-stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
a. Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are PicturePerception Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in QIR Test and PP and DT.
b. Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. the Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO)and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also alloted based on the initial perfomance of the caniddate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/ absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB”.
N.B: Air force given
pilot aptitude test only once for the candidate’s .The test selected
candidates will go to every subsequent InterviewThe SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process-stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :
a. Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are PicturePerception Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in QIR Test and PP and DT.
b. Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days.
The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. the Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO)and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also alloted based on the initial perfomance of the caniddate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage.
The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/ absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB”.
UPSC NDA Exam Syllabus Details
NDA Syllabus: Union
public service commission conducts NDA (National Defence Academy) exam
twice in a year for admission to Indian Navy, Army & Air Force
Wings. Minimum Educational Qualification is 12th class pass in 10+2
pattern. The examination conducts in 2 stages, written examination and
interview.The details regarding Syllabus are as follows…
Syllabus of the Examination:
PAPER-I: MATHEMATICS (Maximum Marks- 300)
1. ALGEBRA: Concept of
set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams. De Morgan laws. Cartesian
product, relation, equivalence relation. Representation of real numbers
on a line. Maple numbers – basic properties, modulus, argument, cube
roots of unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in
decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic, Geometric
and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with real coefficients.
Solution of linear in equations of two variables by graphs. Permutation
and Combination. Binomial theorem and its applications. Logarithms and
their Applications.
2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS: Types
of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a matrix, basic
properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a square matrix,
Applications – Solution of a system of linear equations in two or three
unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by Matrix Method.
3. TRIGONOMETRY: Angles
and their measures in degrees and in radians. Trigonometrically ratios.
Trigonometric identities Sum and difference formulae. Multiple and
Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric functions. Applications –
Height and distance, properties of triangles.
4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS: :
Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula. Equation of
a line in various forms. Angle between two lines. Distance of a point
from a line. Equation of a circle in standard and in general form.
Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis
of a conic. Point in a three dimensional space, distance between two
points. Direction Cosines and direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a
line in various forms. Angle between two lines and angle between two
planes. Equation of a sphere.
5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS: Concept
of a real valued function – domain, range and graph of a function.
Composite functions, one to one, onto and inverse functions. Notion of
limit, Standard limits – examples. Continuity of functions – examples,
algebraic operations on continuous functions. Derivative of function at a
point, geometrical and physical interpretation of a derivative –
applications. Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions,
derivative of a function with respect to another function, derivative of
a composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and
decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of maxima
and minima.
6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS:
Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by substitution
and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic expressions,
trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions. Evaluation of
definite integrals – determination of areas of plane regions bounded by
curves – applications. Definition of order and degree of a differential
equation, formation of a differential equation by examples. General and
particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order
and first degree differential equations of various types – examples.
Application in problems of growth and decay.
7. VECTOR ALGEBRA:
Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and direction of a
vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors, scalar
multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of two
vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors.
Applications-work done by a force and moment of a force and in
geometrical problems.
8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY:
Statistics: Classification of data, Frequency distribution, And
cumulative frequency distribution – examples. Graphical representation –
Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon – examples. Measures of Central
tendency – Mean, median and mode. Variance and standard deviation –
determination and comparison. Correlation and regression. Probability:
Random experiment, outcomes and associated sample space, events,
mutually exclusive and exhaustive events, impossible and certain events.
Union and Intersection of events. Complementary, elementary and
composite events. Definition of probability – classical and statistical –
examples. Elementary theorems on probability – simple problems.
Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem – simple problems. Random
variable as function on a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples
of random experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.
PAPER-II: GENERAL ABILITY TEST (Maximum Marks-600)
Part ‘A’ – ENGLISH (Maximum Marks 200)
The question paper in English will be
designed to test the candidate’s understanding of English and workman
like use of words. The syllabus covers various aspects like: Grammar and
usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text to test
the candidate’s proficiency in English.
Part ‘B’ – GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks-400)
The question paper on General Knowledge
will broadly cover the subjects: Physics, Chemistry, General Science,
Social Studies, Geography and Current Events. The syllabus given below
is designed to indicate the scope of these subjects included in this
paper. The topics mentioned are not to be regarded as exhaustive and
questions on topics of similar nature not specifically mentioned in the
syllabus may also be asked. Candidate’s answers are expected to show
their knowledge and intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics): Physical
Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight, Volume, Density and
Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes, Pressure Barometer. Motion of
objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s Laws of Motion, Force and
Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces, Stability and Equilibrium of bodies,
Gravitation, elementary ideas of work, Power and Energy. Effects of
Heat, Measurement of temperature and heat, change of State and Latent
Heat, Modes of transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties,
Simple musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection
and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses. Human Eye. Natural and
Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet, Earth as a Magnet. Static
and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-conductors, Ohm’s Law,
Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating, Lighting and Magnetic effects of
Current, Measurement of Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells,
Use of X-Rays. General Principles in the working of the following :
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers, Balloon, Pumps,
Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask, Gramophone, Telegraphs,
Telephone, Periscope, Telescope, Microscope, Mariner’s Compass;
Lightening Conductors, Safety Fuses.
Section ‘B’ (Chemistry):
Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures and Compounds,
Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical Equations, Law of Chemical
Combination (excluding problems). Properties of Air and Water.
Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen and Carbon
dioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids, bases and salts. Carbon –
different forms. Fertilizers – Natural and Artificial Material used in
the preparation of substances like soap, Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement,
Paints, Safety Matches, and Gun-Powder. Elementary ideas about the
Structure of Atom, Atomic, Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.
Section ‘C’ (General Science): Difference
between the living and non- living. Basis of Life – Cells, Protoplasm’s
and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and Animals. Elementary
knowledge of Human Body and its important organs. Common Epidemics,
their causes and prevention. Food – Source of Energy for man.
Constituents of food, Balanced Diet. The Solar System – Meteors and
Comets, Eclipses. Achievements of Eminent Scientists.
Section ‘D’: (History,
Freedom Movement etc.) A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis
on Culture and Civilizations. Freedom Movement in India. Elementary
study of Indian Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of
Five Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community
Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and Welfare State,
Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi. Forces shaping the modern world;
Renaissance, Exploration and Discovery; War of American Independence.
French Revolution, Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact
of Science and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United
Nations, Panchsheel, Democracy. Socialism and Communism. Role of India
in the present world.
Section ‘E’ (Geography): The
Earth, its shape and size. Latitudes and Longitudes, Concept of time.
International Date Line. Movements of Earth and their effects. Origin of
Earth. Rocks and their classification; Weathering – Mechanical and
Chemical, Earthquakes and volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides Atmosphere
and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric Pressure, Planetary
Winds, cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity; Condensation and
Precipitation; Types of Climate. Major Natural regions of the World.
Regional Geography of India – Climate, Natural vegetation. Mineral and
Power resources; location and distribution of agricultural and
industrial activities. Important Sea ports and main sea, land and air
routes of India. Main items of Imports and Exports of India.
Section ‘F’ (Current Events): Knowledge
of Important events that have happened in India in the recent years.
Current important world events. Prominent personalities – both Indian
and International including those connected with cultural activities and
sports.
NOTE :
Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper, questions on
Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry approximately 25%,
15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weight ages respectively. Intelligence and
personality test In addition to the interview the candidates will be put
to Intelligence Tests both verbal and non-verbal, designed to assess
their basic intelligence. They will also be put to Group Tests such as
group discussions, group planning, outdoor group tasks, and asked to
give brief lectures on specified subjects. All these tests are intended
to judge the mental calibers of a candidate. In broad terms, this is
really an assessment of not only his intellectual qualities but also his
social traits and interests in current affairsUPSC NDA Exam Pattern Details
NDA Exam Pattern Details: Union
Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts NDA (National defence
academy) and National Academy (NA) Exam (II) twice in a year for
admission into Army, Navy, and Air Force Wings. Minimum Educational
Qualification is 12th Class pass in 10+2 Pattern. The UPSC NDA & NA
exam pattern details are given below…
Exam Pattern: The UPSC NDA exam comprises of 2 stages.
I. Written Examination
II. Interview
I. Written Examination
II. Interview
I. Written Examination: There
will be 2 papers in NDA (National defence academy)and National Academy
(NA) written exam. The papers in all the subjects will consist of
objective type questions only. The question papers of Mathematics &
Part B of General Ability Test will be set bilingually in Hindi as well
as English. Time duration for each paper is 2 ½ Hours . Subjects &
Maximum Marks details mentioned below.
Scheme of Examination:
S. No | Subjects | Time Duration | Maximum Marks |
1 | Mathematics | 2 ½ Hours | 300 |
2 | General Ability Test | 2 ½ Hours | 600 |
Total | 900 | ||
SSB Test/ Interview | 900 |
i. In the question papers, wherever necessary , questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set.
ii. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination
iii. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers.
ii. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects at the examination
iii. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type papers.
II. Interview: Candidates who select in the written examination are called for Interview which is conducted by SSB.
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